ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 141 TO 150 WITH ANSWERS

141. Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above

ANSWER: D. All of the above

142. Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

A. CSI register
B. Known error database
C. Capacity management information system
D. Configuration management database

ANSWER: A. CSI register

143. Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority
C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority
D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency

ANSWER: D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency

144. Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Service strategy
B. Service operation
C. Service transition
D. Continual service improvement

ANSWER: B. Service operation

145. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

A.Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C.They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D.They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language

ANSWER: B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly

146. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. They are measurable
B. They are units of organizations
C.They deliver specific results
D.They respond to specific events

ANSWER: B. They are units of organizations

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 131 TO 140 WITH ANSWERS

131. Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?

A. Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own
B. Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own
C. Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

ANSWER: C. Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own

132. Which Functions are included in IT operations management?

A. IT operations control and facilities management
B. Technical management and change management
C. Network management and application management
D. Facilities management and release management

ANSWER: A. IT operations control and facilities management 

133. Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?

A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Business relationship management
D. Service catalogue management

ANSWER: C. Business relationship management

134. The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

A. Facilities management
B. Access management
C. Request fulfillment
D. Service asset and configuration management

ANSWER: D. Service asset and configuration management

135. What are the three service provider business models?

A. Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore party
B. Internal service operations provider, external service operations provider, shared service unit
C. Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3rd party
D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit

ANSWER. D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit

136. Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

A. Only changes that introduce new services are included
B. All changes are mandated to be included
C. Only changes to business critical systems are included
D. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included

ANSWER. D. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included

137. Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above

ANSWER. D. All of the above

138. Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special

A. 1 and 3only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. All of the above
D. 2 and 3 only

ANSWER: B. 1 and 2 only

139. What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?

A. Serviceability
B. Capacity
C. Availability
D. Continuity

ANSWER: C. Availability

140. Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
1. Incident model
2. Known error record

A. 1 only
B. 2only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

ANSWER: C. Both of the above

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 121 TO 130 WITH ANSWERS

121. Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?

A. Naming and numbering conventions
B. Entry and exit criteria of the release into testing
C. Roles and responsibilities for the release
D. The risk register for the release

ANSWER: D. The risk register for the release

122. Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

A. It is not tied to any particular vendor platform
B. The five ITIL volumes are concise
C. It tells service providers exactly how to be successful
D. It is designed to be used to manage projects

ANSWER: A. It is not tied to any particular vendor platform

123. What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is available?

A. A service object
B. An incident
C. A known error
D. A change

ANSWER: C. A known error

124. Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?

A. Budgeting and charging
B. Accounting and charging
C. Budgeting and accounting
D. Costing and charging

ANSWER: A. Budgeting and charging

125. What is the primary focus of business capacity management?

A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology
B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services
D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion

ANSWER: D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion

126. Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?

A. The service portfolio includes ail services except those managed by third parties
B. It is an integral part of the service catalogue
C. It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service deployments
D. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle

ANSWER: D. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle

127. Which of the following statements describes the objectives of service asset and configuration management?

1. To identify, control, report and verify service assets and configuration items (CIs)
2. To account for, manage and protect the integrity of service assets and configuration items
3. To establish and maintain an accurate and complete configuration management system
4. To document all security controls together with their operation and maintenance

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1,2, and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above

ANSWER: A. 1 and 2 only

128. Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

A. Prioritization
B. Categorization
C. Remediation planning
D. Review and close

ANSWER: C. Remediation planning

129. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

A. Change management
B. Service transition
C. Service design
D. Service strategy

ANSWER: C. Service design

130. Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management?
1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

ANSWER: D. Neither of the above

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 111 TO 120 WITH ANSWERS

111. Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?
A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
B. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
C. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
D. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

ANSWER. A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require

112.Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
A. A capacity database
B. A definitive media library
C. A request for change
D. A known error database

ANSWER. D. A known error database

113. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

ANSWER. D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

114. What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive

ANSWER. C. Informational, warning, exception

115. Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management

ANSWER. B. Problem management

116. Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Detection
C. Prioritization
D. Escalation

ANSWER. A. Categorization

117. Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?
A. Planning how to recover the cost of a change
B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful
C. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change
D. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change

ANSWER. B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful

118. Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
B. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be logged
C. All incidents must be fully logged
D. The service desk decide which incidents to log

ANSWER. C. All incidents must be fully logged

119. Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?
1. Capacity management
2. Request fulfillment
3. Demand management
4. Incident management
A. All of the above
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 2 only

ANSWER. C. 2 and 4 only

120. Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above

ANSWER. C. 1 and 3 only

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 101 TO 110 WITH ANSWERS

101. Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
1. Service pipeline
2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)
3. Service catalogue
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All of the above

ANSWER. A. 1 and 3 only

102. Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
A. Change management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Supplier management
D. Release and deployment management

ANSWER. C. Supplier management

103. Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

ANSWER. B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk

104. Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome
A. 1 only
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. Both of the above

ANSWER. D. Both of the above

105. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
A. Both of the above
B. 2 only
C. Neither of the above
D. 1 only

ANSWER. D. 1 only

106. Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?
A. Process practitioner
B. Service manager
C. Process manager
D. Change manager

ANSWER. C. Process manager

107. Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2. Identifying improvement opportunities
3. Appointing people to required roles
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

ANSWER. A. All of the above

108. Which process has the following objective, ‘Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests’?
A. Service transition planning and support
B. Design coordination
C. Service level management
D. Change management

ANSWER. B. Design coordination

109. Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?
A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle
B. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into them
C. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycle
D. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment

ANSWER. A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle

110. Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?
A. Change management
B. Capacity management
C. Service transition planning and support
D. Release management

ANSWER. C. Service transition planning and support

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 91 TO 100 WITH ANSWERS

91. Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?
A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
B. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
C. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
D. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

ANSWER. A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require

92. From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?
A The customer
B. The user
C. The supplier
D. The administrator

ANSWER. A The customer

93. What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?
A. Service support
B. Incident management
C. Resource management
D. Service management

ANSWER. D. Service management

94. What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
A. Strategic service
B. Delivered service
C. External service
D. Internal service

ANSWER. D. Internal service

95. Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?
A. Technology
B. Standards
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience

ANSWER. A. Technology

96. Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D. An SLA for a service with no customers

ANSWER. A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service

97. Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?
A. Service level management
B. Financial management
C. Demand management
D. Risk management

ANSWER. B. Financial management

98. Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase ‘Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision’?
A. Where are we now?
B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?

ANSWER. B. Where do we want to be?

99. Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Service operation
B. Service transition
C. Service strategy
D. Continual service improvement

ANSWER. D. Continual service improvement

100. Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

A. The change management process owner
B. The change advisory board (CAB)
C. The service owner
D. The continual service improvement manager

ANSWER. A. The change management process owner

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 81 TO 90 WITH ANSWERS

81. Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?
A. Supplier management and service level management
B. Supplier management and change management
C. Availability management and service level management
D. Supplier management and availability management

ANSWER. A. Supplier management and service level management

82. Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Service asset and configuration management

ANSWER. D. Service asset and configuration management

83. Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?
A. Co-ordinate
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Act

ANSWER. A. Co-ordinate

84. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer

ANSWER. D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer

85. Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?
1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3. Defining how value is created
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

ANSWER. D. All of the above



86. In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. Option 1 only
D. Option 2 only

ANSWER. A. Both of the above

87. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service

ANSWER. D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service

88. Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?
A. Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildings
B. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. Managing access to the service desk
D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services

ANSWER. D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services

89. Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management
B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event management
D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and event management

ANSWER. A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management

90. Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
A. All of the above
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only

ANSWER. B. 1,2 and 3 only

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 71 TO 80 WITH ANSWERS

71. Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

ANSWER. C. 2, 3 and 4 only


72. What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D. A document that describes business services to operational staff

ANSWER. A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization


73. Which one of the following generates demand for services?
A. Patterns of business activity (PBA)
B. Infrastructure trends
C. Cost of providing support
D. Service level agreements (SLA)

ANSWER. A. Patterns of business activity (PBA)


74. Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?
A. To negotiate service levels for new services
B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
C. To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities
D. To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue

ANSWER. B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value


75. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem

ANSWER. A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service



76. Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C. To design and build processes which will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

ANSWER. D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers



77. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?
A. An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found
B. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An incident logged by a senior manager
D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business

ANSWER. D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business


78. Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Monitoring system availability
2. Designing availability into a proposed solution
A. None of the above
B. Both of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only

ANSWER. C. 2 only



79. Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?
A. Intrusion detection
B. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre
C. Recording service desk staff absence
D. Monitoring the status of configuration items

ANSWER. C. Recording service desk staff absence


80. The multi-level SLA1 is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?
A. Configuration level
B. Service level
C. Corporate level
D. Customer level

ANSWER. A. Configuration level

a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 61 TO 70 WITH ANSWERS

61. Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
A. Third-party contracts
B. Service level agreements (SLAs)
C. The service portfolio
D. Operational level agreements (OLAs)

ANSWER. A. Third-party contracts


62. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release

ANSWER. B. To design and develop capabilities for service management



63. Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites
A. 1,3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1,2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

ANSWER. A. 1,3 and 4 only



64. Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service operation
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service design

ANSWER. D. Service design


65. Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above

ANSWER. D. All of the above


66. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?
A. The availability of a service or component
B. The level of risk that affects a service or process
C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
D. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order

ANSWER. C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing


67. Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue

ANSWER. B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained


68. Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
B. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

ANSWER. D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders


69. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The configuration management system is part of the known error database
B. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system
C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system
D. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database

ANSWER. C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system



70. Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps.” What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, problems
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, perspective, partners

ANSWER. C. People, process, products, partners a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 51 TO 60 WITH ANSWERS

51. Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?
A Virtual
B. Outsourced
C. Centralized
D. Local

ANSWER. B. Outsourced


52. What is the primary focus of the business management?
A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology
B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services
D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion

ANSWER. D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion


53. Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?
A. IT service continuity management
B. Change management
C. Financial management for IT services
D. Service catalog management

ANSWER. A. IT service continuity management


54. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting

ANSWER. A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change


55. Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Event management

ANSWER. D. Event management


56. Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Longer timescales
B. Less urgency
C. Separate procedures
D. Less documentation

ANSWER. C. Separate procedures


57. What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

ANSWER. D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers


58. In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s contribution?
A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
B. Service value is visible to customers
C. Service value is modeled
D. Measures for optimization are identified


ANSWER. B. Service value is visible to customers


59. Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)
B. Resources and capabilities
C. Service requirements and warranty
D. Customer and user satisfaction

ANSWER. B. Resources and capabilities


60. Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected
C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected

ANSWER. B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected


a

ITIL EXAMS QUESTION 41 TO 50 WITH ANSWERS

41.  Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

A. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
B. Describes the topography of the hardware
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

ANSWER. A. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services



42. Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

ANSWER. A. All of the above

43. Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only

ANSWER. C. 1, 2 and 3 only

44. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
C. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
D. Eliminating recurring incidents

ANSWER. C. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

45. Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

ANSWER. C. Both of the above



46. Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?

1. Enabling
2. Core
3. Enhancing
4. Computer
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1,2 and 3 only

ANSWER. D. 1,2 and 3 only


47. In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?
A. The service level agreement (SLA)
B. The IT service plan
C. The availability management information system
D. The problem record

ANSWER. D. The problem record


48. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It structure an organization
B. It delivers specific results
C. It responds to specific events
D. It is measureable

ANSWER. A. It structure an organization 

49. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transaction stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service managed and operated accordance with constraints specified during design
B. To plan the resources required to manage a release
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To design and develop capabilities for service management

ANSWER. D. To design and develop capabilities for service management


50. Which of the following BEST describes technical management?
A. A function responsibilities for facilities management and building control systems
B. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers
C. Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function
D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure


ANSWER. D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure a